The quote you cite says the opposite of what you claim. He is speaking of impostors
saying, "I am Christ" - not of himself.
You claim he "sternly told his followers" not to call him the Christ - and then you cite no verse to back that mouth-stuff. Indeed, he stood still for precisely that behavior - disproving your thesis.
In John 20:28
Thomas falls to Jesus’ feet saying, “my Lord and my God!” and Jesus does not rebuke or correct Him. In John 5:18
Jesus “called God His Father, making himself equal with God.”
In John 1:1
we are told that “the Word [Jesus] was God”. John 8:58-59
speaks of Jesus' divinity both by talking about His eternal nature and also by using the name of God; “I AM” - – this should be compared with Exodus 3:14
, Leviticus 19:12
. Would Jesus (an observant Jew) make such a claim and use the very name of God so casually in light of the teaching in these verses?
In John 10:30-33
Jesus says that He and the Father are one. John 10:38
all contain clear teaching that Jesus and the Father are intimately connected.Colossians 2:9
contains a explicit teaching of Christ's divinity, as does Timothy 2:13
There are other verses which point to the divinity of Christ, including John 3:16, in which he is proclaimed the ONLY "begotten" son of God. Upon his rising from the dead, he advises Mary Magdelene, "Do not touch me, woman, for I have not yet ascended unto my Father."
The bible teaches he is the beggoten son of God, born of a virgin in Bethlehem of the line of David, precisely as scripture predicted the Messiah would come. We are told he defeated death twice, once by raising Lazarus and once by being raised himself - after which he ascended to heaven, having tasted death already.
You're welcome to parse scripture after scripture to impute new meaning in contravention to established understanding. Just don't expect high fives and cosigns, son. Too many scriptures and prophecies confute you.